Logically I don't think it is, but something about it makes me feel as though I am being evil and wicked and selfish.
This is my 3rd pregnancy.
1st baby went 3 weeks overdue (yes, 43 weeks) and I was then induced which took 2 days so she was born at 43+2. She was fine, if a little overcooked. Placenta healthy as anything.
2nd baby I went to 41 weeks and then the general consensus was that as I'd probably end up being induced anyway there was no time like the present, so he was born at 41 +1. It was a fairly arbitrary date.
So, 3rd pregnancy - chances are I will be induced again. All being well we are planning on making a trip 6 weeks after my due date. I have found myself wondering about getting induced on my due date so as to have 6 weeks to recover and go on holiday with a 6 week old rather than a 4 week old.
I fully realise that we may not go on holiday at all, and our plans depend on all being well, but assuming there are no complications would it be wrong to be induced at 40 weeks for my convenience? It would wouldn't it. But why exactly?
Holiday dates are non negotiable. Holiday is more important than just a family holiday - it is a special occasion trip with friends that will never be duplicated.