Does exclusivley breatfeeding mean I don't need to use any other contraception?

[smallblessings]

My DD is 16 weeks. I have not used contraception since she was born except withdrawal as I thought I had read that BF is as effective as using condoms. I am I right? Just wondering because I keep worrying that prehaps I am pregnant again following a non- withdrawl incident.

LMAO

I have a 9.5 month gap between number 3 and 4...and I was exclusively breastfeeding and using condoms!

Grendle - agreed. So good counselling from FP doc/nurse or GP will pick up the motivated woman who CAN fulfil these criteria. Anything less than that is NOT the lactational amenorrhoea method - it's just taking risks. So "breastfeeding" is not an accepted form of contraception; "LAM" is, with an efficacy that is higher than condom are in non breastfeeding women. (15% typical use failure rate compared to LAM's 2% typical use failure rate en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comparison_of_birth_control_methods ).

(I fulfiled the criteria - it helped that I was cosleeping too - and we successfully avoided pregnancy until 6 months when I started using a diaphragm)

wiki link here

Oh no, Grendle I am worried now. My DD has a dummy. And has had some water on very hot days - but I did'nt have sex around that time. I don't want a teeny, tiny gap. AHHHHH.

I don't understand why the leaflet i was given does not give all the facts.

OK smallblessings, so for people in your situation then on average it will be less than 98% effective. However, if you still meet the vast majority of the conditions, then the effectiveness is likely to still be high, i.e. more chance that you are not pregnant that that you are. I also say "on average" because actually the threshold of hormones needed to trigger the return of fertility is variable between individual women. This explains why some women who meet the rest of the conditions will get a period before 6 months, whilst others may not get a period until they stop breastfeeding completely -even if that is years! First time round it is harder to tell roughly where on this spectrum you are obviously.

For me, LAM was effective despite ds having about a litre of formula over 2 weeks from bottles, starting weaning at 24 weeks and also going longer than 4hrs overnight without feeding on several nights. Actually, I didn't ovulate untilaround his first birthday. With dd I followed the 'rules' more closely, but still she had a few gaps longer than 3-4hrs. My fertility returned when she was about 16-17 months. If you already had your period back at 6-8 weeks, then you'd know this isn't the method for you.

If you are worried then wait 3 weeks since you last had unprotected sex and then take a pregnancy test. Meanwhile, given your reaction, I'd suggest buying some condoms and/or getting along to your family planning clinic .

Where was the leaflet from?

"But you see, soupdragon, for you it would be barking,"

The whole point is that you don't know whether you have ovulated until it is too late. I had no idea my periods were about to return until they were there. I think it is barking because you have no idea you have ovulated until it is too late (I certainly never have any symptoms) and you have no idea when your periods are going to return until they do. At which point it is too late.

With other forms of contraception you often have a fair idea it's failed (burst condom, missed pill etc) in time to take the MAP if that's what you want to do. With failed LAM you have no idea until you are pregnant. That is what makes it barking IMO.