Hello!
A bit of a weird question, but maybe someone has asked their obstetrician about it (or is one!).
For the first-trimester combined test, we are asked as always the LMP date and typical period length, which gives a rough estimation of EDD (ovulation is ~ 2wks after LMP, conception is deemed to have happened then, and from that they deduce EDD).
At the scan they revised the EDD from 12w3d to 13w1d, based on the CRL measurements.
But the fact is that we know exactly when the LMP happened , AND we know exactly when conception happened. Due to travel and other constraints there was ONE day for "intimate activities", and necessarily conception must happen on the day, or a couple days after max... but not before!
It was exactly 2 weeks after LMP date, which means the actual gestational age should pretty much match the textbook estimate of 12w3d.
2 questions:
- doesn't the CRL measurement just mean the fetus is bigger than average? Which might be important (?)
- The serum test for DS and other conditions is based on expected concentration of hormones which are supposed to have come up / down as pregnancy progressed. If the gestational age was indeed 12w and not 13w, does that not impact how to interpret the results?
I'd be delighted if anyone had input!