My friend (single male, in his early 30's) has been having an affair with a married colleague.
Very early on, said married colleague revealed that she had finished course of IVF previous year that was unsuccessful - but said that she was never that interested in kids, IVF was all her husband's idea/doing. However, when sleeping with my rather naive friend, she said that they didn't need protection because she knew because the IVF hadn't worked that she was infertile.
Fast forward three months and she rings friend to say that she is 'ten days late' and is coming to see him later in the week to discuss things.
Maybe I am just a cynical old cow, but it strikes me that anyone who's been through IVF would surely have tested before being ten days late and/or before mentioning it? I feel she's sounding him out to see how he reacts.. she surely knows? Am I being silly?
He is all willing to go into it kit and caboodle, give up his job here and move to where she is, marry her etc.. he is in love with her. I just can't help but feel that she has, well, used him to get pregnant. I think that he's so head over heels for her that if she had said: 'I want to get pregnant, impregnate me!' he would have done, but this seems dishonest.
Of course, he still needs to be responsible as he could have decided on using protection etc if he didn't want a pregnancy, but I'm concerned for him because I feel that she's not being straight with him at all - what else might she be misrepresenting?
(PS I don't agree very much with extramarital affairs and don't take anyone's side in them, so not excusing either of them from the infidelity side of things).