I was reading an old thread on this with stats showing links between DV and poverty on here a few days ago and most people strongly disagreed with the OP. It got me thinking..
I feel a lot of the time people were talking at cross purposes. I don't think coercive control-based DV is less likely to happen to women who aren't in poverty. But I do think other forms probably are connected to poverty.
On here a lot of people treat DV as synonymous with coercive control often : as in they assume it involves a large amount of mental manipulation by the abuser as well as physical violence (if that occurs, of course some abusers only abuse mentally/emotionally).
But I think that overlooks that some forms of DV operate differently and this can link to poverty. If you've read (or watched) My Brilliant Friend, I think Stefano's physical and sexual abuse of Lila shows well what I'm talking about. Violence is normalised overall in their area (a poor area of 1950s Naples), men take out their economic frustrations on each other and on their wives. Moreover, Lila is seen as too independent for a girl and neighbourhood see it is right for Stefano to 'discipline' her physically and force sex she doesn't want. There's no attempt to hide the abuse.
Obviously the book shows a specific kind of environment and plenty of men live in poverty without ever considering physically hurting their wives, but I think in some environments it can become normalised in a way that differs from coercive control.
Coercive control as I understand from people close to me who've experienced it is much more likely, if it involves violence, to be equally bad but is much more likely to be hidden. The abused will not typically have a peer group who endorse the abuse so they will be more calculated and tend to present a 'nice guy' image.
So , TLDR : AIBU to think that coercive control-based DV isn't linked to poverty but that other forms of DV can be?