Can anyone help me to understand how top up benefits work?
I'm 52 and renting, but I may be left some money in inheritance and it may be enough to put a good downpayment on a mortgage, even though I am 52. At the moment I am renting with my 12 year old son and getting top up benefits, and I'm wondering whether I can get top up benefits if I were a homeowner, to pay for a mortgaged property in the same way that I do as a renter? I don't know if it's possible. It seems I would lose my top up benefits altogether between the moment I have over 16000 and the moment I buy a property and have 16000 or less.