From what I’ve seen, heard and read, a febrile convulsion is said to be caused by the rapid increase in a child’s body temp when they get a fever, rather than the fever itself. Literature also says they cannot be prevented. I have done a lot of research since I experienced this with my youngest and it was terrifying at the time.
What I don’t understand is, if I know my child is prone to these when they’re unwell, if I give them something e.g. ibuprofen when their temp is 37 when they’re unwell before it spikes (but I know it would head that way), surely I’m preventing the fever so I’d prevent the febrile convulsion too.
If I am wrong, please can someone who knows more about it than me explain why this would/wouldn't work (and no I’m not saying you would do this often, but if your child is prone to them and they’re unwell,this seems logical to me).