Is it really fraud?

[MellowTiger]

I am a charity trustee and part of my duties is to authorise spending and co-sign cheques.
I was asked to authorise a travel claim for ‘Person A’ but they weren’t entitled to claim, so I declined it. ‘Person B’ attended the same activity and was entitled to claim, but didn’t want to. ‘Person B’ also said they would personally cover ‘Person As’ expenses.

I suggested that maybe ‘Person B’ claim their expenses, thus they would not be out of pocket. Their retort was that would be fraudulent and “they don’t do things like that”.

AIBU that I’m really offended they have accused me of suggesting fraudulent activity? I feel like they’re trying to say I should just sign off ‘Person As’ claim, but that would be fraudulent.

I think I would point out to B that their claim would not be fraudulent and 'what makes you think I would approve of fraudulent activity? because I don't'.

I wonder if there have been slightky crossed wires.

You were intending to say that B could still claim the expenses that they were entitled to (even if they hadn’t originally intended to).

B took is as you saying that they could claim for As expenses.

Ah! I hadn’t thought about it that way.
I think I’ll do what Demonic suggests and ask why they think what I’ve suggested is fraudulent.

Person B should have claimed their expenses and given the money to person A privately if they wanted them to have the money. Nobody else needed to know anything about it.

Also fraud.

Why would that be fraud?
Person B legitimately claims expenses. Person B has autonomy over how they spend their money so they give it to Person A.

They sound like an awkward person and I sure wouldn’t be inclined to help them save their money in future! But if this is exchange was over email I would reply and express that, for the record, you have suggested nothing fraudulent and you find it wholly inappropriate and repugnant for them to suggest otherwise and you would appreciate a retraction of that remark along with an apology.

If B claimed and you paid B, that’s fine. If A claimed and they’re not entitled, tough. What A and B do in their own time is not of interest to you.

How is this fraud? If someone claims expenses legitimately the money becomes theirs and they’re free to do what they like with it, including giving it away surely?

That's how I see it.

Just wondered if you could explain why? I’m guessing maybe the other person sees it this way also. But I don’t understand.