I was posting on another thread about autism and was told categorically that a neurotypical person cannot have traits of autism. My question is, why? It is accepted that autism is a spectrum and many have spiky profiles, so why would it not be true that some neurotypical people would possess similar spiky profiles, some being in line with autistic traits, yet not meet the threshold for an autism diagnosis.
Autism assessments are somewhat subjective (questionnaires, interviews etc) so surely there would be some people who would be on the cusp of diagnosis or who have traits but those traits do not impact their lives severely enough to be diagnosable?
In order to be diagnosed with autism, there are three categories (see photo) that the person must possess, and these criteria must ‘impair daily functioning’. Is it no possible that an otherwise neurotypical person could fit into 1 or 2 categories, thus being on the ‘cusp’ or have traits, yet not be diagnosed with autism as they don’t have the triad of impairments?
Is it not also possible that a neurotypical parent of a neurodiverse child could have ‘traits’, but these traits come out more obviously or strongly in the child, thus leading to an autism diagnosis?
I write this as a parent of an autistic and ADHD child. I have ‘traits’ of neurodiversity, which both myself and others can identify in me, yet I do not believe I reach the threshold to be diagnosed autistic and the traits I have certainly do not impair my everyday life. Many of the traits I possess I can see in my child, but his symptoms are amplified and more pronounced, to the point he needs support (I do not).
I just don’t understand why it’s out of the realm of possibility that someone could have strong ‘traits’ or symptoms of autism, yet not reach the threshold for diagnosis.
AIBU?