Can anyone help me with a legal matter. My ex partner and I bought our first house together back in 2008 and we both contributed £12,000 each towards the deposit. We never married and split, after 3 children 4 years ago. Both names were on the deeds of our first two properties but upon buying the third house we moved into, he had become self employed and it was advised to put the mortgage in my name only and subsequently on the deeds of the house. He couldn't pay his half of the mortgage some months so I paid his share each month that he couldn't.
We split 4 years ago (his decision) and he moved out and rented. He said I could stay in the house until our youngest becomes an adult (8 years time) and then we'd need to sell and he would like his £12,000 plus any equity earned on that portion up until he moved out.
Now he is asking me to sign a legally binding agreement to the effect of the above but I feel this is my home as my name is on the deeds and he chose to move out. I'm willing to give him his £12,000 once I sell in 8 years but no more as I've been paying the mortgage ever since he upped and left. We go halves on all childcare costs and neither ask the other for maintenance. Can he force me to sign? Am I being unreasonable?