Will try and keep it short- two of my friends (A&B) are getting divorced. They currently split their shared costs in relation to their relative net incomes A:B- for simplicity call it 60:40 rounded in B's favour. They are now separated. They asked me to mediate a conversation about short term arrangements today, most of which was fine.
A few years ago B's mum sold them her car in an informal arrangement, which they were paying off in instalments, but recently with the cost of living she wrote off the debt and said they didn't need to pay the repayments any more.
They are now having to pay for a second set of accommodation costs, which they are also splitting according to the net income ratio so money is tight for both of them.
B has said that B's mum wants car repayments to restart now. I was slightly incredulous that she would want to increase financial pressure on them both at this time when already incurring additional living costs and said why would she do that to you both now unless she is planning on giving the repayments back to you? I hit the nail on the head and B wasn't quick enough or switched on enough to lie - lots of bluster about how "she was happy to not have the repayments until her child was getting divorced. She only wants A's 60%. And if she then wants to give me that money then that is irrelevant, its a gift to me from my mum".
To me (and I'm an accountant so "substance over form") this is B's mum fraudulently diverting funds from A to B. Robbing Peter to pay Paul. Taking money from A and giving it to B largely to punish A for asking for the divorce. Funds which A doesn't actually have due to paying for 60% of the additional accommodation costs. This will mean B has quite a lot of money after their family costs and A is left with next to nothing. In the meantime the car remains an asset of the marriage and due to theoretically being the lower earner B will most likely end up with a higher split of the net assets in the end!
I think it is not "a gift" from B's mum, it is regular net income deliberately redirected from A to B by reinstating a previously written off debt out of spite and therefore it shouldn't happen (reinstated debt can be paid out of capital from eventual house sale if necessary) but if it does happen that A makes repayments that end up in Bs pocket then the net income calculation needs to be redone as this is just wrong and tantamount to fraud!
AIBU?