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AIBU?

Share your dilemmas and get honest opinions from other Mumsnetters.

I’ve/ I have

61 replies

UnsolicitedOpinions · 09/12/2022 20:24

I often notice that a lot of people on MN use “I’ve” instead of “I have” in a sense that I wouldn’t do. I mean in a situation where you’re talking about owning something rather than having done something.

I wouldn’t use the phrase “I’ve two dogs” but I would use it in the sense of “I’ve cooked the dinner”

I notice that a lot of people here do though and I wondered if it is a regional thing, as I don’t hear people say it in real life either?

AIBU to ask you this? I must stress that it’s not a criticism - I just often wonder about it.

OP posts:
LemonJuiceFromConcentrate · 09/12/2022 21:19

UnsolicitedOpinions · 09/12/2022 20:55

The omitting “to be” is a regional thing. Definitely some people in Cumbria and Lancashire would say things that way - quite old people too.

It’s called the “needs washed” construction, I think. Common here in Scotland too, and in a few specific areas of Canada and the USA (which I guess could be linked to emigration patterns from the relevant UK regions).

I’ve been on a thread before where people were extremely scathing and ignorant about it!

dancingqueen123 · 09/12/2022 21:22

I've two dogs sounds quite Irish to me.

dancingqueen123 · 09/12/2022 21:23

bloodywhitecat · 09/12/2022 20:33

I would say "I've got two dogs", from the south of England.

This.

Fifthtimelucky · 09/12/2022 21:27

It was drummed into me at school that the word 'got' was best avoided so I would say 'I have two dogs'.

I'm English (south east) and would definitely say 'I haven't' rather than 'I've not'. Friends from Lancashire always say 'have you not ...' where I would say 'haven't you...'.

MrsCarson · 09/12/2022 21:37

I use got sometimes but my grandmother used to make us speak without using the word got. So, I have, was quite natural to us by the time we were adults.
I've two dogs isn't incorrect but it sounds better as I have two dogs. I've seems to lend itself to having got added.

Whataretheodds · 09/12/2022 21:39

you don't hear people say it in real life

You might not.

Contrary to popular MN opinion, something's not incorrect usage just because it's unfamiliar to you.

UnsolicitedOpinions · 09/12/2022 22:32

Whataretheodds · 09/12/2022 21:39

you don't hear people say it in real life

You might not.

Contrary to popular MN opinion, something's not incorrect usage just because it's unfamiliar to you.

I can’t actually see any post by anyone who has said these exact words, so I guess you are paraphrasing my original post. Where I said “I don’t hear people saying it in real life.” I was talking about me specifically, where I live and the people I talk to. Not a general “ you” meaning “ one doesn’t hear it” as you are implying.

This was kind of the point of the question. I even stressed that I wasn’t saying it was incorrect, I was interested in where most people who say this are from.

OP posts:
sevenbyseven · 09/12/2022 22:37

WhitePhantom · 09/12/2022 20:54

One thing I've (😁) noticed is the difference between Irish and UK for "I have not" - Irish would say "I haven't" whereas UK would say "I've not".

But to answer your original question, I'd say "I've two dogs" if I was speaking, but if I was writing it I'd say "I have two dogs".

But actually I've only got one dog 😅

I would say "I haven't", not "I've not" - south east England 🙂

mathanxiety · 09/12/2022 22:44

I don't see an issue.

It's a question of how speechlike you want your written communication to be.

OldWivesTale · 09/12/2022 22:47

It sounds like a Lancashire/ Yorkshire way of speaking to me.

maximist · 09/12/2022 22:47

My teacher in junior four (showing my age...) had a complete hatred of the word 'got' - he said that there was never any need for it in a sentence - so I'd say "I have two dogs"; "I've two dogs" just sounds wrong to me. I would say "I've been to the shop" though.

He was also very down on the word 'nice', he said there was always a better alternative. He was a great teacher.

mathanxiety · 09/12/2022 22:47

I wouldn't say 'I've got a cat'.
That 'got' isn't necessary imo.
(From Dublin, currently in US)

mathanxiety · 09/12/2022 22:49

Lol, @maximist
I may have had a teacher or two who subscribed to the same philosophy as the one you encountered.

mathanxiety · 09/12/2022 22:52

@LemonJuiceFromConcentrate

I think the usage 'needs washing' is more common in the US, but there are huge regional differences there.

Squamata · 09/12/2022 22:53

South West here and I'd say 'I have a brand new conbine harvester'

mathanxiety · 09/12/2022 22:54

@Fifthtimelucky

I think you've nailed it.

humdingle · 09/12/2022 23:01

Money saving expert always has this strange usage of I’ve, you’ve etc. It sounds really unnatural to me.

Coxspurplepippin · 09/12/2022 23:03

We had it drummed into us at school that 'got' is generally unnecessary. So 'I've two dogs'.

Coxspurplepippin · 09/12/2022 23:04

maximist · 09/12/2022 22:47

My teacher in junior four (showing my age...) had a complete hatred of the word 'got' - he said that there was never any need for it in a sentence - so I'd say "I have two dogs"; "I've two dogs" just sounds wrong to me. I would say "I've been to the shop" though.

He was also very down on the word 'nice', he said there was always a better alternative. He was a great teacher.

Whoops - missed your post - wonder if we had the same teacher!

mdinbc · 09/12/2022 23:04

Canadian, west coast:
I have two dogs.
I cooked dinner. (no have), but I've got a bad headache.

Tadpoll · 09/12/2022 23:37

dizzydizzydizzy · 09/12/2022 20:43

In 'I've cooked the dinner' the 'have' is an auxiliary verb. That is also the case in 'l've got two dogs'. That does sound more natural than 'I've two dogs' where it isn't an auxiliary.

The auxiliary verb in the first case is to form the present perfect tense, whereas it’s not really acting as an auxiliary in the same way in the second case (possessive).

In French for example, J’ai would be used in both cases interchangeably - as the auxiliary verb to form the past tense in one case and in the other as the possessive verb. I have cooked/I have two dogs.

But in English because it’s a batshit language we’ve developed another possessive word ‘got’, which some people use as well as ‘have’ to form a sort of double possessive.

I’m guessing, but I think this double possessive ‘got’ will have evolved because for some reason speakers didn’t like the ambiguity between the two meanings of ‘have’.

Although other languages manage it 🤷‍♀️

SaulHudsonDavidJones · 09/12/2022 23:48

Yes! I've noticed this recently and it makes me wince if I'm honest. I know it's just different accents and style but it still sounds odd to me.

OrangePomander · 10/12/2022 00:00

Sounds normal to me (Northerner here).

Oblahdeeoblahdoe · 10/12/2022 00:06

Tadpoll · 09/12/2022 23:37

The auxiliary verb in the first case is to form the present perfect tense, whereas it’s not really acting as an auxiliary in the same way in the second case (possessive).

In French for example, J’ai would be used in both cases interchangeably - as the auxiliary verb to form the past tense in one case and in the other as the possessive verb. I have cooked/I have two dogs.

But in English because it’s a batshit language we’ve developed another possessive word ‘got’, which some people use as well as ‘have’ to form a sort of double possessive.

I’m guessing, but I think this double possessive ‘got’ will have evolved because for some reason speakers didn’t like the ambiguity between the two meanings of ‘have’.

Although other languages manage it 🤷‍♀️

Oh I like this explanation. At school we were always told there was not such word as 'got' and no sentence ever needed it.

mrsjoyfulprizeforraffiawork · 10/12/2022 00:17

Re "got". When I was growing up (1950s/60s) it was thought to be a horrible, unnecessary word (according to. my parents, anyway) so I don't use it much. I think I might occasionally say, "...but you have GOT to do that" for emphasis but otherwise just use "have".