To think now Govt members/MPs can get away with sexual abuse?

[itsnotmeitsu]

Because, 'there was no intent to break the law'? How much does this defence allow them to get away with?

No, it doesn't mean that at all. UK law and the Ministerial Code along with the broader rules on conduct in public office are separate matters.

You are probably referring to the news that Boris Johnson has claimed his partygate fine “did not breach” the Ministerial Code as there was “no intent to break the law”.

He was investigated, been found guilty of breaking the law, taken the punishment and paid the penalty. If someone was credibly accused of sexual abuse then the same criminal procedures would happen.

Political parties and their politicians are often found to have broken the law, but when there is no proof they intended to break the law, the rules on conduct in public office and the ministerial code have not been breached. Mostly it is the government of the time that finds itself in trouble. Recent cases have included unlawfully discharging patients from hospital to care homes without Covid testing. Gavin Williamson unlawfully removed safeguards for children at the start of the pandemic. Matt Hancock acted unlawfully by failing to publish contracts within the required 30-day timescale. Labour under Corbyn broke the law through antisemitic harassment and discrimination. In 2008 it was found that Tony Blair and his government broke both UK and international law by halting the SFO investigation into the Al Yamamah Saudi-British arms deal.

@jcyclops > "UK law and the Ministerial Code along with the broader rules on conduct in public office are separate matters."

I understand what you're saying, but I still can't get my head around the idea that because, 'There was no intent to break the law' means you can break laws. Surely the law is the law? Yes, a ministeral code which is supposed to govern conduct in public office is different to a judicial law, but the phrase, 'There was no intent to break the law', is surely crucial. Even if you separate out the 'ministerial code' from the laws as the rest of us understand them, the phrase, 'There was no intent to break the law', as a get-out, means that yes you can break laws (UK courts or otherwise) as long as you had no intent to break them.

@jcyclops > Actually, rereading your post - re your statement, "Political parties and their politicians are often found to have broken the law, but when there is no proof they intended to break the law, the rules on conduct in public office and the ministerial code have not been breached ..." I find pretty horrifying.