Bouncing this off of another thread, as I didnt want to hijack theirs, but hoping there are folks more knowledgeable than I out there (I will also ask our mortgage advisor closer to the time)
I thought mortgage and deeds were totally separate? but another poster is saying the mortgage lenders didnt want her on the deeds despite putting a large lump sum towards the deposit!?
So my question is can they make the same stipulation with a remortgage, or once you have brought the house and are on the deeds are you on for life (or til sale)??
Short history, I owned a house solo, my partner started to paying towards said house half way through the 4 years i owned it (though I alone paid the deposit) We brought a bigger house together, the 20% deposit was from my house sale. A generous person would say about 30% of that money was from his contribution over the 2 years, though it could be argued less if you take into account the rise in house prices whilst I owned solo......fast forward 5years, two young kids and a pandemic later his wage has risen considerably and mine has crashed and burned! sob.He now pays 90% of the bills for house and kids, I pay the other 10%, my own bills (car/phone etc) and day to day costs like food, kids clothes etc.
When we remortgage next August I was predicting that the bank would not bother to take my earnings into account (especially as I had seiss payments which a lot are being funny about)
Sooooo do I need to insist on staying on the mortage or is it a totally different situation to previous poster, when you already own the house and are on the deeds??
Thanks folks!