We moved into our current house a couple of years ago.
The set up is quite strange in that for some houses our drives are "split", with the public footpath in between.
This is not the case for houses that front straight onto the road, but only for those of us with landscaping areas between the house and the road.
We have a main drive, then the public footpath, then a bit that runs through the bushes to allow vehicular access to the road.
In all cases these extra sections are on the deeds as owned, rather than a ROW and some people pave them to match the rest of their drive.
Ours is not paved (just the original tarmac with edging blocks) and is wide enough to easily fit a car, though we don't usually park there.
We live on a corner so cars cannot be parked on the road outside without it being dangerous.
It quickly became apparent after we moved in that our lower drive is used as a shortcut by pedestrians coming from a footpath opposite. We have no problem with this.
They cross the road at a diagonal and cross the drive to the footpath as it's a shorter route and wider pavement than the other side.
This is all for background. But my AIBU is this.
We have had a major leak in the bathroom. The entire thing has to be ripped out, dried and redone.
The insurance company has provided a massive mobile bathroom for us.
But it's on the main drive and I cannot fit my car on there too.
So for the past couple of weeks (and for the foreseeable future) I have been parking on the lower drive. The car fits entirely on our owned section between the bushes and is not impeding the public footpath between the two sections.
This means pedestrians cannot currently use it as a shortcut and I've had a fair few people make nasty comments and complaints about how I shouldn't block the "path" - essentially they've come to think of that section as a public path.
So am I being the unreasonable one here?
Diagram included as it's parking thread law.