Hello,
I divorced many years ago, but for many different reasons I only got round to changing my name back to my maiden name a couple of years later, when my first child was born. I officially started using my reverted back to maiden name, from the month and year that she was born. I just didn’t want my former married surname on her birth certificate and any of her paperwork. I then went about changing everything back into my maiden name.
At the start of this year I got a DBS for a volunteering role which did not work out in the end because of Covid. On it I put the start of my name change from the month and year my child was born. Lately I realised that some things e.g a credit card account, for example, was probably not changed until a few months later, after her birth - my memory from the birth year is terrible, post natal depression, family problems and this was quite a few years ago! But at that point I was identifying as, and was only known as, by my reverted back to maiden name, using my divorce certificate and birth certificate as proof. My question is would this be therefore be considered an overlap of names, over a few months, because I still hadn’t changed all of my paper work or is it fine to use date of my child’s name as that is when I officially started calling myself by my reverted maiden name?
Sorry this is so convoluted, but I can’t seem to get an answer for this. I just worry that I filled out the form wrong or misunderstood it. I would like to volunteer and do charity work in the future but worry that this could be a bit of problem for me. Or am I overthinking this and worrying too much?
Many thanks in advance for any advice.