Just asking because my ex is fuming that I was seeing someone (not anymore, but thats "not the point") because I am, in his words, a married woman and therefore its adultery.
Surely its adultery if it is what causes the end of the marriage and not when you start seeing someone after the marriage has ended but before divorce?
We have not lived together for almost 2 years and although I could divorce for unreasonable behaviour as he was very violent, I decided not to poke the bear and wait for 2 years so its no fault. In all honesty I still think he harbours a hope that I will have him back, even after all he did, so probably considers it cheating.
The irony that he is accusing me of adultery when he cheated throughout our entire marriage is not lost on me......