I would be really grateful if people could give me their views on this.
STBXH was very difficult to live with - very moody, sulky, treated me with contempt and had poor hygiene. Things went downhill very quickly after we got married. I kept trying to talk to him about his behaviour but he would always shut me down and refuse to discuss anything. I kept trying until I had a nervous breakdown and then I filed for divorce (married less than 2 years, no DC no shared finances at all). We lived in a home which had been provided by me, rather than him or us jointly and he paid what was supposed to be half the bills.
He has kept asking for money from me in the divorce. He works, earns a good wage and has bought his own home. I don't work for health reasons and get by ok, but don't have any spare money. I didn't ask for anything in the divorce because I don't think it's appropriate in this case.
He says that he wants me to pay to reimburse him for what he has spent on lawyers bills because it was me who wanted the divorce and he didn't apparently. He says he shouldn't have had to pay for a divorce he didn't want. I'm floored by this - he claims it was all a massive shock to him, I really don't know how it can have been.
Can anyone get their head around this? I just can't fathom how someone could hire a lawyer (which isn't compulsory) and then say that the person who couldn't cope with their behaviour should have to cover their legal expenses, in addition to their own, because they didn't want to get divorced. Am I missing something? This is utterly lost on me!