A friend is going through a divorce. Her husband is the primary earner. His solicitor has submit a list of my friend's wrongdoings (it's bullshit and even if it wasn't, it's minor) to court who claim it has been "proven" that my friend has been unreasonable and therefore has to pay for all of his legal fees as well as her own. She's going to court to contest this. She's skint. She's done nothing wrong. He on the other hand very much has.
How the f* is that a thing? Can one party just state some shit and then, if uncontested, have the other party pay for all legal fees for both? Even when they're skint and the other is the primary earner?