Posted this under Pregnancy but posting here for traffic as well, as lots of HR whizzes might be here rather than over in that thread...
In a recent meeting with my boss, I said that I wished to save my maternity leave for when baby was here, but might use my remaining annual leave to go a bit early (if I am struggling with work/fancy finishing up a few weeks before due date)
She said I was perfectly within my right to do so, but, as I am currently training up my maternity cover hire, if I was willing, she'd rather me work and be paid for my untaken holiday.
I provisionally agreed to this (as I would prefer the money, and my job is a desk role and not strenuous). I then recieved an email from HR telling me I would be paid for the holiday I have accrued to date.
During the conversion with my manager, I was under the impression I would be paid for my remaining annual leave for the whole year (1st Jan - 31st Dec 2019).
I fed this back to HR who said no, I would be paid for the untaken holiday accrued so far this year, and the remaining holiday accrued during my maternity leave would be rolled over to next year + bank holidays (Bonus, didnt think I would be getting them on top).
But now I am not as comfortable with this. It doesnt seem right. I wont be able to take any annual leave while I am on mat leave, as obviously I wont be at my place of work, so that remaining holiday to accrue should already be mine - as I am still employed and entitled to it despite being off work.
Not only that, but by their method, I would be returning to work towards the end of 2020 with 28 days holiday + 2019 holiday accrued during my mat leave + 8 bank holidays, meaning I would have to take loads of time off before the end of the year when it was renewed.
Any advice please would help a lot.
Also, to make matters even more complicated, my DH has suggested I request my holiday lump sum is paid to me when I am receiving stat mat pay, not before, as the lump sum + my usual salary payment will incur a higher rate of tax and student loan payment. Is this correct, and if so is it reasonable/likely to be honoured if I ask for a delayed payment (after the 6 weeks of 90% earnings period)?
Thanks HR/mat leave experts