Hi, I’m hoping for some advice I have filed divorce from my partner due to his unreasonable behaviour (h actually cheated on me but is refusing to accept the grounds of adultery and I have no physical proof that he did). He doesn’t want to instruct a solicitor as this will cost him money but I cannot really afford one. One thing he has said to me though is that he is entitled to half the house. I’m not sue he is tho, when we bought the house 5 years ago, he brought no equity to it as his previous house sold at a loss and I provided the £140k equity. The house is now worth £220k and we have a small mortgage left. Some people have suggested that he is only allowed half of the mortgage payments that have been made since we bought the house whilst others have suggested he’s entitled to half the house....
Can anybody help me here with this query before I engage with a no-doubt very expensive solicitor. It would be much appreciated.
ManyThanks 🙏🏼 x