To not understand the removal of barriers in the EU?

[Itcouldbeyoubutitsnot]

I was reading an article on BBC website regarding whether clearing is unfair on Scottish students

www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-scotland-33753677

Scottish students do not pay tuition fees. Each university reaches a deal with the Scottish Funding Council on just how many "free" places should be available. The limit is rigid and once it is full, it is full.
These places are primarily for Scots, but because of European law they are also available to students from other EU countries.

But they are not available to English, NI or Welsh students - why not? How is that legal under EU law? Have the three countries left the EU? Or is this another example of a country using the EU law selectively and not in the way it was intended which was a level market throughout the whole of the EU not select parts?

This has been discussed in great detail before. It's because, in EU terms, the member country is the UK - not the individual component countries. So, no, it's not another example of a country using EU law selectively. If Scottish students go to an English university they pay full fees.

Ah sorry hadn't realised it was done before (doesn't surprise me) but thanks for explaining it so clearly that makes sense on both counts.

I wasn't telling you that in a snotty way - I just meant, that if you do a search, you'd get a far better and more detailed explanation than mine!