After almost 10 years of being together, and a reasonably healthy sexual relationship (apart from the odd barron spell) my wife has now refused to have sex with me until I have an STI test - either visit a clinic or do a home kit. As far as I am aware the only thing that has prompted this request is her concerns that it is not impossible for me to have contracted an STI from a previous relationship and its stayed dormant and therefore this shoud have been something she should have requested 10 years ago, but its better late than never. She has stated that this is not because she has any worries that I have cheated on her.
To put some more persepctive on this, there have been no affairs from either of us, I am the only person my wife has slept with, and before meeting my wife, I have only had sex with 2 other people, the first being a virgin at the time (and 18 years ago), and the other wasn't (and this was around 14 years ago. Also, I have had no symptoms of ever having an STI.
I initally purchased a kit over the internet and the test involved inserting a cotton bud almost fully in the family jewels. Wee-ing on a stick would have been fine, but I drew a line at this. -so its still sitting in the surgical packet
I don't profess to be a medical expert, and I havent spent any time reading up on my wife's concerns about whether STIs can stay dormant, however I do think that after this length of time (14 years) that if I had been carrying a nasty, something would have presented itself by now.
So, is wife being unreasonable to make this request and withold sex without any other concerns of fidelity, or am I being unreasonable about feeling that this is quite an irrational request after such a long time.
Any thoughts on this would be appreciated