Ok. Pls. enlighten me...
If two people get married, and have no children... why is it that when they divorce, the one with less income should always benefit from having married someone wealthy?
Like the example of the older woman who married a young surfer dude who never did anything but was awarded a big share of her assets, so she had to remortgage her house (with the prospect of not being able to leave any inheritance for her children from her first marriage).
Or a guy who married a girl who swiftly gives up a career to be a lady who lunches for no reason whatsoever but wants 'her share' after a divorce of a marriage that produced no children.
I always see legal language saying that the partner has to keep the 'standard of living they have become accustomed to'? Why??
When someone is made redundant, there is no duty of care to anyone's standard of living. People just have to move on and work. Why is it that when you marry a wealthy guy tomorrow, divorce him 3 years later, do no work whatsoever, courts believe you can be kept in style in an ongoing manner?
AIBU to think that if no children are involved, both partners should just continue as though they had never met?
AIBU to think that people who just give up work for their own leisure rather than caring for kids have to take responsibility for their actions once a divorce comes along?