....massively easy to fall foul off.
I posted a link to it in one of the poppy threads, and this is a modified version of that post.
The mailcious comms act is defined here: www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1988/27/section/1
It's pretty clear - and it's pretty much been the case since 1988.
Any person who sends to another person?
(a)a letter, electronic communication or article of any description which conveys
(i)a message which is indecent or grossly offensive;
(ii)a threat; or
(iii)information which is false and known or believed to be false by the sender; or
(b) any article or electronic communication which is, in whole or part, of an indecent or grossly offensive nature, is guilty of an offence if his purpose, or one of his purposes, in sending it is that it should, so far as falling within paragraph (a) or (b) above, cause distress or anxiety to the recipient or to any other person to whom he intends that it or its contents or nature should be communicated.
Now - we can argue about individual cases - I'd say he falls under that - because what he did is by any right thinking person, grossly offensive - and was a malicious act.
However, I think the more interesting aspect is that there are massive grey areas - some very sarcastic posts can easily be interpreted as grossly offensive when someone else doesn't get the joke. Also 'Information which is false' - who defines it's truth? I could say something like 'savers are being pillaged by QE - and the BOE are absolute bastards' (let me make clear, I'm not saying that - it's an example of a statement) and if the government disagree, they can prosecute.
And I believe that the common understanding of the person on the street is that we live in a country where we have 'free speech' - that clearly (under law) has been open to interpretation for a while.....
What is to be done?