I'm puzzling and could do with someone in the know's opinion on this.
My friend is in a long term (12 years) relationship. The past year has been rocky for one reason and another, culminating in her 'playing away' for a couple of months about 3 months ago. She assures me she used condoms, but i guess you never know. Her partner found out and it all came to a stop.
Shortly afterwards her partner developed some symptoms, was tested and positive for an std, she doesnt know which one. She then went to the clinic for treatment and when she was screened she came back clear. She was treated preventatively with an injection in her bum and antibiotics, if that throws any light on what it was.
Her partner lays the blame squarely at her door that she caught this from the other man and passed it to him. However, if she didnt have the std, could she have passed it to him without contracting it herself? Or is it possible he had a 'revenge' shag elsewhere and caught it?
Sorry for introducing std's over breakfast ;)