I'd appreciate advice on this one before I pay out for solicitors. It has been run before but got turned into a bunfight to MN pulled it. I need some proper advice so hopefully I'll get some of the knowledgeable posters recontributing again.
Mum's home is downstairs maisonette owned by her. She owns the land to the back and the front, the upstairs maisonette owner (landlord and one of the rudest vilest men I've ever come across) though is being perfectly charming right now because he wants something.
She is the freeholder, upstairs landlord/owner say they are also freeholders of the land the property stands on (not the front/back garden which is mum's). He wants mum to convert to a leasehold and is trying to say that the propery will be worth more if it converts.
I thought being a freeholder meant that you owned the land forever, not for a fixed term as with a leasehold so am I being thick and therefore unreasonable, in thinking there is no benefit and not being able to work out what possible benefit there could be?