bloomsinjune, the scenario described in your post as at 21:10:15 is right.
My tuppence on the matter (basically a LONG version of your post ...)
He's talking crap - to an extent. You have to look at 2 things separately:
(A) The mortgage
(B) Ownership of the house
Mortgage
Mortgage lenders usually lend on the basis of salary.
If your DH earns say £40,000 pa (gross) and they lend at a ratio of 3xannual salary, in theory, he would be approved for £120,000.
Lending to two people, instead of one, throws up the issue that most mortgage lenders will e.g. lend on the basis of
2.5xannual salary of the person who earns more
PLUS
1xannual salary of the person who earns less.
This means if your DH earns £40,000 pa (gross) and you earn £10,000 pa (gross), jointly you'd both be approved for a mortgage of:
£100,000
PLUS
£10,000
TOTAL
£110,000
So, in theory, there is nothing stopping you from taking out a mortgage together, no matter how little you earn. However, if you earn substantially less than him and you want to apply for the mortgage jointly, there is a risk that you both together would be approved for a lower amount than if he simply applied by himself. This may be a problem if, in buying a property together, you would not have enough money based on both your salaries taken into account for a mortgage.
Ownership
When you decide to buy a property with the aid of a mortgage, the mortgage lender will want to know who is to be put on the deeds as the owner of the house.
The owner does NOT have to be the same as the person who has taken out the mortgage. HOWEVER, you may find that some mortgage lenders will not want two names on the deed when only one person has applied for the mortgage - the mortgage lender cannot stop your DH from putting you on the deeds were you to buy a house together, but they may refuse to grant you a mortgage/loan you the money.
This is because , if your salary has not been taken into account when you applied for the mortgage, the mortgage lender knows NOTHING about your financial history. An overly cautious lender will NOT want someone having a legal interest in the house about whose finances they know nothing - it throws up problems in the future should e.g. the DH default on the mortgage, the lender tries to enforce its security (ie retake possession of the house, sell it and recover monies owed to them) and suddenly a person from seemingly nowhere can potentially stop them from being able to do this or reduce any amount that goes to the lender if and when the property is sold and the mortgage needs to be discharged.
My advice -
- Wait till you can afford a house when a mortgage lender has to take into account BOTH your salaries!
- Regardless of whether you apply for the mortgage together, if you do end up buying the property, ensure that you are listed on the deeds as a legal owner. (If a mortgage lender has a problem with this, find a new one!)
- When registering the property, your solicitor should have you complete a form RX1. On this, you should specify that you and your DH are to own the house together either
(a) as joint tenants (this means, if your DH dies, his share of the house automatically transfers to you) OR
(b) as tenants-in-common as to 50% (this means you have a 50% beneficial interest in the house which, when you die, you can pass on to whomsoever you choose)
(there are associated inheritance tax issues about this which any conveyancing solicitor worth their salt should be able to explain clearly to you)
- Under NO circumstances should you agree to be put on OR pay towards the mortgage if your ownership rights are not recognised on the Land Register (this does not apply vice versa - if your ownership rights are recognised on the deeds/Land Register, you may or may not be put on/pay towards the mortgage as you wish/you and your DH agree)
Please do not let anyone fob you off by telling you you could register occupational rights based on it being the matrimonial home - this merely gives you a right to occupy the home if you have children under the age of 18 and are the primary carer* - it does not give you an ownership interest in the value of the property. Once your children turn 18 or you remarry or circumstances exist where a court would not consider it reasonable for you to remain in the home, you would have to leave the property and when it is sold, you may end up not being entitled to a share of the proceeds.
Do note that the advice above is my personal opinion based on assumptions and worst-case scenarios - I am not a qualified solicitor and, as such, am NOT qualified to advise you on legal matters. I am also NOT a qualified financial adviser and, as such, am NOT qualified to advise you on financial matters. . For all I know, any law/financial advice that I have referred to above may have changed - having said that, I am going through a (for now, amicable-ish!) split with my DH and have run into all kinds of issues for the very reason that I did not have my name put on the mortgage or the deeds to the property.
If in doubt (and your OP sounds like you have a LOT of doubt, and not without good reason!), seek independent legal advice. Either go to a conveyancing/family law solicitor (some offer the first half an hour of advice free) or, if you can't afford solicitors' fees, your Citizens Advice Bureau.