ok I know this is none of my business. I just can't understand it really -
A man I know has at least £250,000 cash and owns a flat and a house outright. He has his two school age children 40% of the time and his ex has them 60% of the time.
She got a generous divorce settlement. Out of court he bought her a house and gives her around £500.
She doesn't work but I think she is looking but their 2 kids get free school meals. I don't get it - surely this can't be right when they are with their wealthy father 40% of time and she has no mortgage etc