I'm just back from the medieval practice that is a smear test.
I have questions.
- HPV is a sexually-transmitted infection, yes? This is what causes the cells to mutate and potentially cause cancer.
- If I am as sure as possible that I have not contracted HPV (e.g. celibacy/ same partner) since my last test, why do I need to have it? Can it lay dormant?
- If they are just being extra certain (after all, none of us really knows 100% if our partner could be cheating), why is this the only sexually-transmitted infection they regularly test for?