I am bamboozled!!! Colleague ranting today as they have 28 days holiday like the rest of us full timers but he works different hours each day - 7.5 hours mon, 8 hours tues-thurs then 5.5 hours fri - he books A LOT of fridays off so has apparently been getting them passed by using 0.75 days AL per friday instead of 1 day. However in my opinion that should mean he has to OVER compensate on his longer 8 hour days but he hasn't been - just using 1 days AL for these. But surely this means he is ending up with more holiday than the rest of us by doing this?! He disagrees of course! By the way a normal standard working day is 7.5 hours. Please can someone help explain who is correct here!