My DS6 was diagnosed yesterday with amblyopia in his left eye at an opticians appointment (could hardly see any of the letters - I think he said the VA was 6/10?). The prescription in his left eye is -0.25. His right eye is overcompensating which has given him a prescription of +1.50 in that eye with a VA of 6/5.
He has been prescribed glasses to wear for three months, after which they will see if they have made any difference and if not will refer to the hospital for patching.
I understand the basics... (though this is all new to me - when it was obvious that his vision was poor in his left eye, I was assuming myopia - I am very short-sighted and his older sister has worn glasses since she was two, also because of myopia).
But his prescription in his left eye is not quite myopic, is that right? So what has caused the weakness if not a difference in prescription? From my understanding, the right eye has only become 'longsighted' because of his weakness in his left? He doesn't have strabismus nor any physical cause (ie cataracts).
What will the glasses do? Do they correct the prescription in his right eye so it isn't working as hard? If that is the case, will wearing the glasses reduce his vision (at least in the first instance) as the sight in his right eye won't be as strong?
He did have another sight test six months ago and they said his sight was fine then (L: -0.25, R: 0; VA both 6/6). He seems to be relatively old for this issue to appear? I've read that treatment really needs to occur before the child is 7, is that right?
Any insights welcome, thank you :)