Question about property and divorce

[LegalQuestion9]

I am going through a divorce and I have a question.

He was awarded some money through a court case in the US.

This money was used to buy property here. We are joint owners (tenants in common I think) on the property.

Can the money he was awarded (pre marriage) be ring fenced in such a way that I have no shares in the property even though I am a registered owner? (It's probably not relevant but I have earned him a lot of money that he would not have otherwise earned through rentals and looking after things for him).

I do have a solicitor but I won't be having another meeting with her for a few weeks.

I know I'm asking for free legal advice so I'm not expecting anything really, just if anyone has any vague idea on this and time to burn! Thank you in advance.