I'm so confused. I've looked online but every site says something different and nowhere breaks it down in a way that answers my question.
I've always worked for myself - sole trader, so never had a salary or employed anyone.
The issue is:
DS is 21 and working in his first job out of uni for a small London firm as a trainee manager. Currently on 23k for a 40 hour week. He can take 4 weeks holiday a year.
He reckoned this meant he was on about £11.90ph - over NMW for his age, as he wasn't taking into account the four weeks' holiday. I said that by April, he needs an increase of £795.20 pa or he will be earning under NMW, as it rises for his age group to £11.44ph.
£11.44 x 40 hpw x 52 wpa = £23,795.2
But £11.44 x 40hpw x 48wpa = £21,964.8 - so if the holiday weeks aren't paid at an assumed 40 hours per week, he'll be earning enough.
He doesn't want to ask his boss for a rise, but I said as he is doing 40 hours per week, (10am-7pm with an hour for lunch, 5 days a week) then his boss is legally obliged to up his pay from 1st April.
I think I upset him as he thought he was doing well and now he thinks he may soon be earning under NMW, despite being a trainee manager in a very expensive city. It is an incredibly competitive profession that he has come into, and he is really lucky to have landed the job.
I want him to at very least be paid a legal salary. Am I right or have I completely miscalculated? Should I take the 4 weeks holiday out of the equation?