A question for music theory experts?

[User565394]

This is about church, choral music really. I'm trying to put into words why one ending to a piece of music sounds right and finished, another leaves your sort of hanging on for more if you know what I mean?
They're both different versions of the Amen we sing at the end of a church service. I can't remember the words for why one sounds better (to my ear, maybe not everyone). Something about cadence or intervals or tonic or dominant, there's something lurking in the back of my mind from Grade 5 theory last century but I can't quite remember the words.
I've attached two tiny excerpts from the end, hopefully thats not breaking any copyright.
They're both in F major.
Please someone put me out of my misery.

You are right it is about cadences.

The first example is a perfect cadence. This means chord progression V-I (Roman numerals) also known and dominant to tonic - which in the context of F major is a C chord followed by and F chord.

The second example is an imperfect cadence. It ends on a C major chord, so if that piece in F major that’s the dominant (V).

The reason the first one sounds “finished” is because it has ends on the tonic (I) chord of the key it’s in (F major).

Yep, the first one ends on the tonic so sounds 'finished'.

I actually really like church music that has imperfect cadences!

How weird that these half-remembered terms popped into my head today after me not thinking about them in probably 30 years. Some days I can barely remember what i went into Tesco for.

Thanks for explaining.