Just that really.
If the father had some shares and the mother had a property, do the shares automatically become part of the mother's estate when the father died.
Or does the fact that they're now both dead mean the shares can be passed directly to the children.
The problem is that there is a dispute about the house so we would like to be able to proceed with the transfer of the shares first, but if they have to go to our mothers estate then they both have to be dealt with together.
Obviously, I will get proper legal advice, but I'm out of the country at the moment so just wanted to get people's thoughts.