I guess it depends how old they were when they gave it away, how long since they gave it away and did they already believe that they would need to go into a care home at some stage.
The fact that it was done 7 years ago and assuming neither of the parents was in imminent need of a care home at that time, I don't think it will count as deprivation of assets
What counts as deprivation of assets?
Deprivation of assets applies when you intentionally reduce your assets, such as money, property or income, so these won’t be included when the council calculates how much you need to pay towards the care you receive.^
When your council is deciding whether getting rid of property and money has been a deliberate deprivation of assets, they will consider two things:
You must have known at the time you got rid of your property or money that you needed or may need care and support
Avoiding paying for care must have been a significant reason for giving away your home or reducing your savings.
It’s not just giving away your money that could be seen as a deliberate deprivation of assets. Different methods of reducing your money or property could count too, including:
giving away a lump sum of money.
transferring the title deeds of your property to someone else.
suddenly spending a lot of money in a way which is unusual for your normal spending.
gambling the money away.
using savings to buy possessions, such as jewellery or a car, which would be excluded from the means test.
If the local council thinks that you have deliberately reduced your assets to avoid care fees, they may still include the value of the assets you no longer have when they do the means test.