How to ensure your A/l entitlement is calculated correctly

[Sassy31]

So here’s my question, can’t seem to get a straight answer from my employer, so I’m wondering if someone could sign post me or advise on , how I know I’m getting my correct entitlement ? . After my first maternity leave I went back to work 25 hrs a Wk spread over four days, but not working on a Monday. Before maternity my a/l entitlement was 31 day & all B hold so I had 39 days paid in all. So now I don’t work on a Monday , so my a/l entitlement is 22 days a year. So what I need to know is, does that sound right as I’ve lost 17 days in all, if that makes sense. Apologies for the long post, but I’m trying to get my head round it but I just can’t seem too get any clarity on it. 🙄

A part time employee can't be treated less favourably than a full time employee. So, if a FTE gets 31 plus 8 days a PTE legally has to have this amount but pro rata to the days/hours worked. Working or not working on a Monday is irrelevant

It doesn't follow it's less favourable though, does it. If you are part time and work only Mondays, with the other way of working it out, you could potentially have 6 days off for Bank hols, while only working 0.2FTE.

But then you'd use part of your a/l allowance to book the 6 days. In this instance a .2 FTE would be entitled to just short of 8 days including a/l entitlement. If they chose to use 6 for bank holidays that's their choice, many companies would allow you to make up days

No, I'm saying there are two ways:1)your leave is enhanced with a pro rota amount of leave which you then book off for days which you would usually work but you aren't because they are bank hols. The 2) is you don't enhance leave, you just have off the bank hols that fall on working days. In that instance, a person working Mondays is going to have the majority of Bank hols off and not have to book leave.

I totally agree the fairest way is 1). But it isn't unheard of to have 2), and it isn't "illegal".