Really, I just don't get it. Bearing in mind that I'm just a personal seller getting rid of a few odds and ends, mainly worn clothes - the sort of stuff that people wouldn't really be returning anyway.
If there's an item that's £7 plus £3 postage, and someone else is selling the same item for £10 with free postage, the £10 one will always sell first. Why? Surely it costs the same in total?
I sell everything with free postage now because I know people prefer it, but I've upped my prices accordingly so that I make the same amount in the end. Actually it's reduced a lot of worry for me because it means I can just estimate the cost and not worry about being accused of overcharging, but that's really besides the point.