Ex-H wants to divorce me, in fact I would say he's desperate to divorce me although he won't tell me why.
The family home has been sold and I have found somewhere for me and DD. My mortgage is dependent on me getting a lump sum from the sale of this house. I have agreed that if I get that then I'll sign over rights to his pension and stuff.
The first letter came through and was incorrect so I asked for it to be changed. This led to a load of abuse from Ex-H and threats to make me lose my new house if I didn't sign. I held firm and the new letter was sent. However it now says:
You are to receive £x from the proceeds of the sale (following repayment of the mortgage and deduction of Estate Agent fees and any disbursements). Our client will receive £x and the balance will be spilt equally between you.
Am I right in thinking that the bit I've highlighted should come at the very end? At the moment it reads to me like my share is only guaranteed after the fees have been paid but his isn't?
Thanks so much in advance.