In a situation where a child's dad keeps getting reported to SS as a concern (drugs, DV - first against mum, then other girls when she split up with him, other crimes, uncontrolled MH issues and delusions), but the mum has been assessed as fully competent to protect the child, why can SS not give a straight answer re contact?
Why can't they say that supervised contact must be put in place, instead of just 'advising' to? So then dad rings up SS and they say there's no open case, they're not stopping anything and he can have her 50/50 if he wants, leading to lots of upset and aggression 
Even after a significant case of DV in front of the child, which ended the relationship, in the same call as SS recommending an urgent non mol - they told mum that SHE had to phone dad and tell him he couldn't see the child anymore. Mum completely agreed, but couldn't understand how they could recommend a non mol whilst also demanding inflammatory contact. Repeatedly insisting that mum puts herself and her child at danger by inflaming a very violent man the day after a DV incident, and telling her that was what was best for her child.
I don't get it. I guess the first bit - is it because direct orders can't be given without a court case or the child going on some kind of plan, which could be seen a waste of time/ money when the child is safe and well cared for? If so, I wish this policy could be changed.
But the last incident - I think about it all the time, and I can't understand the rationale behind it. It's the first and only time I've ever felt so forced to do something which was likely to harm me and DD by the authorities, and being terrified my child would get taken off me if I didn't comply. Can you explain the thought processes behind this, if this was in line with SS protocol?
Thanks