OK Dittany on your question on rape and marriage.....
I don't think marriage should be a defence for rape (...obviously, but just wanted to make that clear).
I think your question is why don't i see the fact that until relatively recently it was, as hands-down evidence for The Pariarchy? (is that right?)
I am guessing that my understanding of the facts of the matter are much the same as yours - marriage was a way of controlling women's fertility, a wife was seen as part of a husband's property (and her father's before that) therefore rape was seem as a property crime against the man rather than a crime against the woman. Therefore there was no concept of rape within marriage. ...is that right?
Yes I agree that is patriarchy (as in families ruled by men) - but I think the question we differ on is how that situation came to be.
My understanding (although obviously I'm no expert) of The Patriarchy theory is that it says that it happened because men decided to use their greater physical strength to oppress women, invented patriarchal marriage as a way to institutionalise that and control them and have oppressed generations of women with it ever since.
That's the bit I think doesn't stack up, as it seems to imply that there was some time before men decided to oppress women when the idea of consent was universal and respected. I don't think there is any evidence for that (and good reasons to think it isn't the case).
I also think it doesn't recognise that the exchange between men and women implied in patriarchal marriage - i.e.; support, protection and recognition of paternity by a man in return for a guarantee of fidelity by a woman - made sense both ways (in those days - pre-contraception, when survival of children was far from assured, and when life was pretty dangerous and nasty).
Either way it doesn't change the question of whether rape in marriage is now defensible.