An issue I've seen before was raised again in this thread and I thought I'd talk it out here rather than derailing the thread or showing my ignorance .
Issue is that feminism is blamed for the rise in house prices during the 70s/80s. The argument would appear to be that because women were able to (a) work and (b) earn a fair wage for doing so, the laws of supply and demand meant that prices and loans were geared towards double-income households, thus pretty much forcing everyone to go out to work whether it suited them or not, and making it very difficult for single earners to afford to buy a house at all. The net result is to reduce options for women rather than increase them.
There's definitely something that does not stack up here, but I am not an economist (tried doing an economics course at the OU a few years ago, couldn't get my head round it). I mean, there's the obvious point that if the price of housing depends on half the population being either chained to the kitchen sink or paid a lot less for doing the same job, this is unfair - like a society based on slavery, but you see we just can't afford to pay them, it's better for the slaves too etc. Also there are far too many assumptions that all women can get married if they want to (let's not even start on the theory that they should want to!), that working age equates to child-bearing age, that all women can as well as want to give birth, oh, and that all men are able to earn enough money to keep a family. These are all fair points IMO. What I'm looking for, though, is hard economic arguments as to why feminism taking the blame for house price rises is horseshit, because I'm fairly sure it is, but I couldn't tell you why.
Could someone with brains that work and/or who has read Useful Texts on the subject help me out, please?