I have to admit that the research itself confuses me.
For example, take a look at this table.
If I'm reading this correctly, what she is saying here is that approx 20% of women will always be "home orientated" and 20% "work orientated". The rest will be "adaptive".
The adaptive portion will go either way and are hugely affected by government policy, opportunities available for women, attitudes to working women, school hours etc (ie all the things feminists complain about).
In the UK, she estimates the adaptive portion to be approx 70%. That's an awful lot of people, who she must be assuming are "choosing" to downsize their careers. But she seems to be saying herself that if things were different and society was less sexist, that adaptive section of society may well choose to continue with their careers.
So really not sure how she can say that she's showing that women's preferences mean that they want to stay at home. She is showing that a large number of women are heavily influenced by external factors when they make their work/life choices and those external factors favour putting careers aside. Surely? 