What do changes in the level of wages have to do with the prices of commodities?
The price of all commodities expresses labour value plus surplus value. The labour value in a loaf of bread is somewhat less than that expressed in the sales price of a car as an example. If the chinese bake bread they will bake a lot of bread in order to afford our car. Actually what happens is that the worker expends more labour hours in baking bread to afford the car and actaully has less money to buy bread if he buys a car. Marx said that this would create a surplus of commodities.
But won?t the rise in the purchasing power of the working class drive up the prices of the necessities that enter into the consumption of the working class? Maybe the price of food and other necessities would rise. If the labour value is expressed as wages then the prices rise in accordance, if the demand is constant this is sustainable but of course that can't happen. If your wages rise by 50% and food costs 50% more than workers actually have less money to spend on other commodities.
If workers have more purchasing power Capital will therefore start to flow out of industries that produce commodities that are consumed by the capitalists into industries that produce commodities for the workers. As this process unfolds, prices of necessities will fall while the prices of commodities such as Gulf Streams will rise. Soon the rate of profit will be more less equal once again. However, the new average rate of profit will be lower than it was before the rise in wages.
Second, more of the total labor time of society will be devoted than before to producing commodities for the workers and less to producing commodities such as Gulf Streams for the capitalists. There will be a greater chance that a given worker will be producing commodities for her fellow workers and less chance that a given worker will be producing commodities for her capitalist exploiters.
This doesn?t mean that prices will necessarily be exactly the same as before. This is because commodities tend to sell at prices that don?t exactly express their value but rather at prices that equalize the rate of profit among the various branches of industry. In more labor-intensive branches of production, or, to use Marxist terminology, in those branches of industry that have a lower than average organic composition of capital, prices will rise as wages rise and fall as wages fall, because these branches of industry spend more on their ?labor costs? than the average for industry as a whole.
It isn't possible to have an average rate of labour time or wages over all methods of production and all commodities, therefore labour intensive commodities have a higher price which means workers who work in less labour intensive industries actually end up with less purchasing power.
Capitalism on a level playing field will fail dismally, it actually thrives on the inequalities unless it reaches a tipping point.
So no I don't think my comment was strange!