None was? Or were?

[ChipInTheSugar]

I think it's the former, but I know in speech it's generally said as the latter.

Would you correct 'were' to 'was' in a written piece? Or accept that the wrong version is generally accepted?

Spent 10 minutes reading about the subjunctive mood. Very interesting, thanks guys. Never heard of it before!

Depends on context: see www.lexico.com/definition/none

"It is sometimes held that none can only take a singular verb, never a plural verb: none of them is coming tonight rather than none of them are coming tonight. There is little justification, historical or grammatical, for this view. None is descended from Old English nān meaning ‘not one’ and has been used for around a thousand years with both a singular and a plural verb, depending on the context and the emphasis needed."

In merryhouse's post above
If I were, for example, checking my husband's thesis or stroppy letter....
'were' sounds correct but should that be 'was' as well? If we are saying that it's a singular/plural thing?
It's the subjunctive.

Sorry - didn't finish reading the thread. This has now been pointed out several times.

@merryhouse

Yes the subjunctive takes "were". Now what about the gerund?