Apologies if this is in the wrong place, not sure where to post...
DH and I are looking to buy a house. £600k.
DF has kindly offered to "gift" us £200k.
We have £100k.
Mortgage agreement in principle of £300k.
DF has now got cold feet a little "what if you divorce, sell up etc" and wants to give us the money as a loan - but with no repayments (ish, I'll get to that) so he can have a secondary charge on the property of £200k.
Realistically, he's never going to ask for the money back. Sort of like an early inheritance. But due to issues in DH and I early relationship, DF wants to know should we divorce, he gets the money back, and can ensure it stays with me and DC, not losing half of it to DH.
He intends to word similar to "A loan of £200k which only becomes repayable on sale of the property, or on divorce of the buyers."
So there will actually be no repayments. And if the house gets sold for whatever reason, he gets repaid, secondary after the mortgage company is repaid.
When we applied for the mortgage, and got the agreement in principle, it was on the basis of a gift of £200k. This is now a loan...but with no repayments, but with a secondary charge on the property.
DH believes we will now lose our agreement in principle as it's no longer a gift. DF believes it will make no difference as it doesn't affect our affordability rating (because no repayments) and that the mortgage company gets satisfied in full,. first should the house get sold whether he's gifted us the money, or loaned in this manner.
Can anyone with insider knowledge shed some light? Not "best guesses" please or assumptions. Actual knowledge please. And I do know we can speak to our broker tomorrow, but DF made the comment "if your broker says this is a problem, it shouldn't be, and you need to find another broker" and I'd like to know if he's correct.