Name changed for this one.
I've tried Googling but I can't find a straight answer, I'll try and keep it brief but might be a long one as not to drip feed.
My husband divorced ex wife around 6 years ago (horrible nasty abusive woman, he's been diagnosed with ptsd because of what she put him through and is still taking a high dose of antidepressants now but that's a whole other thread!) She made claims of unreasonable behaviour from him but it was actually from her.
Unfortunately due to her abuse he wasn't really of sound mind when they were divorcing, they (ex wife & her equally horrible parents) had effectively 'paid' him off with £25,000 & she got to keep the house. He is still named on the mortgage as she can't get a mortgage on her own or with anyone else it would seem. In the divorce paperwork they signed it is stated that he is not responsible for the mortgage (as agreeded by her) but we have a letter from the mortgage provider in the last couple of years to say he is infact still responsible. The divorce paperwork states that she must try to get him removed but we know she hasn't tried as she knows full well she can't get a mortgage on her own. He is no longer on the deeds to the house but as he's still on the mortgage and liable for it, in theory if she was to sell the house would he be legally intitled to any money from the sale?
Ideally we need to speak to a solicitor but we don't have the money for that at the moment.
I'll just add I've never owned a house so not 100% how these things work!