Resurrecting this post as Labour have made their intentions around VAT avoidance more clear, even if not the implementation.
I think the key point on this is the question on date of payment vs date of consumption of the pre paid service.
We are considering pre paying our childs fees, and as the OP pointed out, the offer is not very compelling, with no discount, although the ability to claim back if we leave etc.
On that basis, for all the reasons discussed earlier, it doesnt look attractive, but if we had confidence that we would save VAT it might still be worth it. Though I note someone elses comment on expected return over 5 years largely negating this saving.
We've gone and got the quote from the school and within it it lists the charges and balance remaining at the start of each term for the whole duration. It also states that the invoices will be dated for the applicable start of term.
My take on this is that it would be relatively trivial for the government to draft the legislation in such a way that VAT is applied at the applicable rate at the time it is drawn down and the invoice raised. In other words, prepayment upfront wouldnt protect you.
Now, I suspect the school has drafted it in this way out of caution and to avoid any future challenges/complications, but I would be interested in knowing how they have been drafted for others on the forum who have explored/done this type of thing? Are your agreements written in a way to suggest the payment upfront is somehow for the services to be delivered in the future?
I feel like some in the previous discussion are perhaps being over optimistic around the chances of advance payments (even if done before Labour come into power this week), being effective in avoiding VAT. Would be happy to be wrong of course.