Hi There,
Hoping for advice on matter below.
As a result of irreconcilable differences, my wife of nearly 5 years informed me earlier this week that she will be seeking for a divorce and that she's moving out with our son of 3 and half years in a month's time to rent out a place.
The property we currently live in was purchased after we got married but solely with earnings I made prior to us getting married. There is no pre nor post nuptial agreement.
If we do end up divorcing, I wanted to find out whether she's entitled to any share of the property as her name happens to be on the mortgage agreement?
If I'm able to prove she never contributed to the deposit nor contributes to the monthly mortgage repayments, is she entitled to any share of the property by the fact that the property was purchased after we got married?
Also considering she is gainfully employed, can she still ask for spousal maintenance mainly because i earn considerably more than she does? I am happy to pay towards child maintenance but I question whether because she is moving out, i need to pay for spousal maintenance?
Also, I'm able to prove that I solely pay for the mortgage repayments, house/utility bills, council tax and everything else without support from her.
She only supports herself in terms of living expenses such as her car lease, dieting, phone bill and also towards nursery fees of our son.
Our son attends nursery 4 out of 5 days in a week. He is entitled to 30 hours free childcare out of the 32 hours of nursery that he attends every week. This works out around £200 a month which wife solely pays . We both chip in on son's maintenance but wife contributes around 60% and I, 40%.